![]() |
|
Standing - Printable Version +- MarcStevens.net Forum (http://marcstevens.net/board) +-- Forum: No STATE Projects (/forum-15.html) +--- Forum: General Discussion (/forum-21.html) +--- Thread: Standing (/thread-631.html) |
Re: Standing - Nomos - 12-08-2010 10:59 AM RealSkinny Wrote:I finally get to use this face --> I know! Isn't that a fun one? RealSkinny Wrote:Whenever Marc tells you guys you can beat a citation with a standing argument, do you pester him with questions about why you would bother making a standing argument when the state doesn't even exist? Asking questions is not argument. And it's the COURTS that say who has standing to file a VALID citation before it. Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-09-2010 05:36 AM Nomos Wrote:RealSkinny Wrote:. . . there's no reason why his proposed Standing defense wouldn't apply to murder cases as well.I wasn't suggesting that you were advocating it, I'm doing some splanin' myself. However, you just made my point. Yes it could, would, and does apply. You'll hear no argument from me if you think the government abuses their authority. I just don't think the standing argument is a winner. I keep forgetting winning isn't the point. Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-09-2010 05:42 AM holipsism Wrote:If someone stole something from me but there were no eye witnesses and no direct evidence obtained of the theft, and just a strong feeling I thought they stole it from me, I could bring a case against them. Would it go to trial? Just because something passes the Standing test or Corpus Delicti doesn't mean a case is valid. There are numerous reasons why you might not be able to bring the case. If you have no evidence showing causation, I would say it probably would not go to trial. I'm not really sure what you're getting at though. Re: Standing - holipsism - 12-09-2010 10:37 AM RealSkinny Wrote:Nomos Wrote:RealSkinny Wrote:. . . there's no reason why his proposed Standing defense wouldn't apply to murder cases as well.I wasn't suggesting that you were advocating it, I'm doing some splanin' myself. However, you just made my point. Yes it could, would, and does apply. If you have a business and the mafia wants you to pay them protection money how do you "win" against them? Re: Standing - WorBlux - 12-09-2010 05:23 PM RealSkinny Wrote:This makes perfect sense to me because we allow it in civil law, so if we're going to allow standing in criminal law at all, it must also come with the ability to satisfy the injury with violation of a legal right. And what is a crime if not a violation of a legal right created by the State? How does one create a right without consent? There are a few unilateral, but reciprocal or universal rights, which are both widely known and approved. Everything else, especially if it is purported to arise from a document must be traceable to a contract or agreement. RealSkinny Wrote:Under our current system, the State does represent the public, for better or worse. It basically goes like this... If you'd just read the damn spooner tract, you'd know that there are several legal deficiencies in that theory. For an agreement to be binding, it must be reasonable to assume that a person wished to be bound personally to it. Voting is an anonymous process, so it is unreasonable to assume that anybody intends to bind themselves thereby. Additionally, very rarely is there a direct referendum, most laws or votes are one step further removed by a so-called representative. Representation in a true legal sense requires that the agent be responsible to the principle. The constitution declares these so-called representative irresponsible to anybody except themselves. Further the principle must be responsible for the agent though vicarious liability. Again the anonymity and subsequent inability to show an intent to be bound completely obscures such a possibility. The person who acted contrary to the law may have never voted for it (and you couldn't prove it besides), may not have voted at all. And if he did vote and vote for it, that is not to be taken as a sign of agreement since most likely he found himself faced with two distasteful option, and chose the one he believed to be less injurious to himself. As such voting is not any evidence of an agreement or as support of government. There is no evidence whatsoever that the people DBA "The State" represent anybody in any real or legal way except themselves. Re: Standing - WorBlux - 12-09-2010 05:26 PM RealSkinny Wrote:You'll hear no argument from me if you think the government abuses their authority. I just don't think the standing argument is a winner. I keep forgetting winning isn't the point. Factually what is authority? Re: Standing - indio - 12-10-2010 12:23 AM WorBlux Wrote:Factually what is authority?I'll take a stab at it... The right and power to act unless the act involves someone else , in that instance it is the voluntary agreement of the parties. Re: Standing - NonEntity - 12-10-2010 08:10 AM WorBlux Wrote:Factually what is authority?Here's a definition (the first one) from American Heritage Dictionary: Quote:The power to enforce laws, exact obedience, command, determine, or judge.[right](emphasis mine)[/right] Translation: We have guns and we're more than happy to use them. Here is a deep philosophical examination of the concept at a Stanford University site which says the same thing as my translation but takes page after page after page after page after... to say it. If it ain't voluntary you have my permission to shoot the bastard(s). :winkwink: (there. you now have authority!) - NonE Re: Standing - Nomos - 12-10-2010 10:44 AM RealSkinny Wrote:You'll hear no argument from me if you think the government abuses their authority. I just don't think the standing argument is a winner. I keep forgetting winning isn't the point. I think you also miss the point. Once you've been accused, although you may be "successful" in "defending" you have not "won." Because you won't get compensated from the time you lost having to deal with the matter, nor can you ever get that time back. This is equally offensive if you take into account that there shouldn't have been any charges in the first place. Re: Standing - Nomos - 12-10-2010 11:03 AM Well, I've found a case I've been looking for. For those who have been trying to draw a distinction between standing in civil and criminal cases, I submit the following in support of the proposition that it doesn't matter (I am in California, therefore I will be using California decision: Quote:Civil actions: ââCalifornia follows the âprimary right theoryâ of Pomeroy: âEvery judicial action must therefore involve the following elements: a primary right possessed by the plaintiff, and a corresponding primary duty devolving upon the defendant; a delict or wrong done by the defendant which consisted in a breach of such primary right and duty; a remedial right in favor of the plaintiff, and a remedial duty resting on the defendant springing from this delict, and finally the remedy or relief itself. ... Of these elements, the primary right and duty and the delict or wrong combined constitute the cause of action. . . .â (4 Witkin, Cal. Procedure, supra, Pleading, § 24, p. 85, original italics.)ââ Bush v. Superior Court (Rains) (1992) 10 Cal.App.4th 1374 [13 Cal.Rptr.2d 382] Quote:Criminal actions: âIn every criminal trial, the prosecution must prove the corpus delecti, or the body of the crime itself - i.e., the fact of injury, loss or harm, and the existence of a criminal agency as its cause.â People v. Sapp (2003) 31 Cal.4th 240, 285 [quoting People v. Alvarez (2002) 27 Cal.4th 1161, 1168-1169, [119 Cal.Rptr.2d 903]. Now there it is. It doesn't matter if it's a "civil" action OR "criminal" action, standing is is required before process may be invoked. ADDENDUM: Reviewing Marc's Standing References, page, low and behold, the cases above are listed. So, I think this is a prime example of why "comprehension" of what's being said is mandatory. There's a whole page with every state saying the same thing, and that reference page has been there for more than a year. So why is this still being debated? Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-10-2010 05:11 PM Nomos Wrote:RealSkinny Wrote:You'll hear no argument from me if you think the government abuses their authority. I just don't think the standing argument is a winner. I keep forgetting winning isn't the point. I hear you. I believe in England it's customary for the loser to pay court costs. For some reason this never caught on in America. Maybe this is the reason our country seems so lawsuit happy. Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-10-2010 05:23 PM WorBlux Wrote:If you'd just read the damn spooner tract, you'd know that there are several legal deficiencies in that theory. The topic of this thread was the effectiveness of Marc's Standing interpretation in the courtroom, which a disgruntled client was calling into doubt. I was merely responding to that issue. Topics about the effectiveness or validity of government are really outside my area of expertise. I'm only well versed when it comes to specific legal topics, like standing or corpus delicti. I think I've said this in our conversations before, I could give you my opinions on the subject if you want, but I don't know as much about it as you do. Re: Standing - Nomos - 12-10-2010 05:31 PM RealSkinny Wrote:I believe in England it's customary for the loser to pay court costs. For some reason this never caught on in America. Maybe this is the reason our country seems so lawsuit happy. Well, that's actually the custom here as well. But, usually the attorney's are the only ones to collect, appearing without an attorney, more times than not, the court will either order each party to carry their own costs, or award costs more biased against the party without an attorney. Lawsuits (and I'm just speculating) are many maybe because the attorney gets paid by their client whether the attorney wins or loses. Great gig! Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-10-2010 05:32 PM Nomos Wrote:Well, I've found a case I've been looking for. Now here's something I do know about. Standing and Corpus Delicti are not the same. If you'll notice, the requirement for Standing is different. It requires that an injury be suffered by a plaintiff. Corpus delicti does not have this requirement. Re: Standing - Nomos - 12-10-2010 05:43 PM RealSkinny Wrote:Now here's something I do know about. Standing and Corpus Delicti are not the same. If you'll notice, the requirement for Standing is different. It requires that an injury be suffered by a plaintiff. Corpus delicti does not have this requirement. I don't catch your meaning. Both civil and criminal actions have plaintiffs. Both have to have suffered injury, the difference is one is solely caused by bad motive. |