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Re: Standing - NonEntity - 12-15-2010 10:32 AM

RealSkinny Wrote:I think your description is rather biased. Who are the folks with the guns? I gather you're referring to the police, correct? And then you claim these same people create the laws. Is it the responsibility of the Police to create laws in our society?

I'm going to say that your description of how our government operates is factually incorrect. The police don't create the laws, and something doesn't become a crime because it causes an injury to the police.

RealSkinny,

I'm blown away by your response here. I have to say that you appear either willfully stupid or unbelievably naive. "Who are the folks with the guns?" !!! :eekeek: Barry Obama hizownself said, on the record, that government is "A group of people who hold a monopoly on the legitimate use of force in a given territory."

I thought you were seriously debating this issue, but I see that I've been mistaken. :rolleyes2: Bye!

- NonE


Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-15-2010 11:02 AM

NonEntity Wrote:
RealSkinny Wrote:I think your description is rather biased. Who are the folks with the guns? I gather you're referring to the police, correct? And then you claim these same people create the laws. Is it the responsibility of the Police to create laws in our society?

I'm going to say that your description of how our government operates is factually incorrect. The police don't create the laws, and something doesn't become a crime because it causes an injury to the police.

RealSkinny,

I'm blown away by your response here. I have to say that you appear either willfully stupid or unbelievably naive. "Who are the folks with the guns?" !!! :eekeek: Barry Obama hizownself said, on the record, that government is "A group of people who hold a monopoly on the legitimate use of force in a given territory."

I thought you were seriously debating this issue, but I see that I've been mistaken. :rolleyes2: Bye!

- NonE

I'm sorry, I'm still not sure who you mean when you say the people with guns. Are you talking about the police? The government? Everybody?

Clarity is nice.


Re: Standing - Nomos - 12-15-2010 11:13 AM

NonEntity Wrote:I thought you were seriously debating this issue, but I see that I've been mistaken. :rolleyes2: Bye!

- NonE
Quote:“As a general principal, standing to invoke the judicial process requires an actual justiciable controversy as to which the complainant has a real interest in the ultimate adjudication because he or she has either suffered or is about to suffer an injury.” People v. Superior Court (Plascencia) (2002) 103 Cal.App.4th 409; [126 Cal.Rptr.2d 793]. (Bold, italics, underline and color relief added.)
RealSkinny Wrote:There are no cases in existence that say whether or not Standing applies to criminal law, so I can't just provide you with a case and settle this whole debate, but that is also the source of my skepticism. If there are no cases or statutes that say Standing applies in criminal law, then my own concern would be to walk into court and start referring to laws that don't exist.
That case [People v. Superior Court], is clearly "a case," is clearly "criminal," and clearly states that "STANDING" is a "general principal."

Yeah, I've come to the same conclusion.

~Nomos


Re: Standing - WorBlux - 12-15-2010 02:49 PM

RealSkinny Wrote:
WorBlux Wrote:If there was a real, factual, and legal tie between Jones's rights or interests and your own, then yes he would have standing.

And if there was no legal tie, he wouldn't. Therefore, we can have a battery and still not have standing. So how can we say every legal doctrine that requires an injury is interchangeable? Just because we have a crime (corpus delicti) doesn't mean we have Standing.

Not exactly, someone still has standing or or has an injury caused to themself by another.

RealSkinny Wrote:
WorBlux Wrote:And the second issue here is in a partly factual sense which you use the term battery. Charmingly enough it leans to a bit of natural law theory when you argue this way. You believe smith can be said to have committed battery without a court having given their opinion that smith committed battery. In the positivist sense which you've largely argued from, there is no basis on which to say you successfully proved that anyone committed battery without such a legal opinion being issued by a competent court. In order for smith to have actually committed battery in the positivist sense you need to have it declared by a court with jurisdiction. Therefore a positivist must include jurisdictional requirements into the elements of any crime or tort to be consistent. When you admit there can be such a thing as the tort or crime of battery without any specific "authorized" legal opinion of it being such you are moving into natural law theory in which an action my violate the principles of justice weather it is recognized as doing so or not.

Well to get into court we just need the claim that a battery has occurred and that the plaintiff has standing. So, if you prefer, you can create a sufficient claim for battery without creating a sufficient claim for standing.

Yes, but your claim alone means didly squat until a judge agrees with it. If you accuse me of battery, and then published in a newspaper that I was a batterer instead of an alleged batterer, I might be able sue you for libel.

You do need to set out facts sufficient for a judge to see how it could possibly be battery and tell him that is what you intend to prove, but it is never "battery" until the final judgment.


Re: Standing - WorBlux - 12-15-2010 03:38 PM

RealSkinny Wrote:
WorBlux Wrote:The problem is that case has a specific legal meaning. You can't get from mere assertion to evidence of injury in fact. You need evidence, the who,what, why, how and when. Commission of a crime (if it were true that State was what it claimed to be) entails an injury, but not every act alleged to be a crime entails an such an injury. Were you go wrong is that you assume drug possession to be a crime merely because the state alleges that it is so. As I demonstration I could file a suit against you claiming that you owe me for the labor of creating these replies. Just alleging that you've violated one of my rights by not paying me for this reply would be insufficient. I would have to show how such an act or failure to act on your part violated on of my rights, and if the right in question wasn't life, liberty, or property, I would also have to outlining how exactly I acquired that right before standing would be satisfied. (you go on to repeat this more or less later in the same post)

The creation of a crime is essentially the creation of a right. A community may create rights for itself. When a community votes to make drug possession illegal, they are basically creating a right to live in a drug free community. When you possess drugs, you violate this right. It's really no different than the "case or controversy" requirement itself. "Case or controversy" doesn't exist as a natural right or anything like that. There's no injury involved that would make anyone believe it's naturally established. It had to be created by the community for the community. If we had a community where they did not create the "case or controversy" requirement, we would not claim the right existed anyway. That community would probably operate free of any "case" requirements, until they decided to create some.
How do you create a right without an agreement? I can understand how a person can claim a right under a contract., and the breaking of contracts impede peace between man and man. I can understand how a person can claim a right to control his own person and property, as many people trying to control one thing at once impedes peace between man and man. I want to live in peace, and thus have good reason to support others in their own pursuit of the same.

And your whole theory that these laws are actually representative of anyone, much less everyone is suspect. I've already offered the reasons why, so if you want to claim this you need to actually try to overcome the objections I listed previously.

Your idea that law is just merely words is absurd and leads to an absurd situation. If the law is just words without any inherent relation to justice or morality, how in the world is anybody supposed to know what they mean? Instead of just one law, you have as many laws as there are combinations of the differing meanings of the words used.

And here's the question you should really face yourself with: How is all of it then factually and qualitatively any different from what criminals do? What are the factual and qualitative differences between enforcing law and doing crime, if any?

If it is fundamentally separate from justice (and thus and real justice being accidental [as opposed to essential, not as opposed to intentional]), then it's just a bunch of people (weather voters are actually part of this bunch or not) declaring the actions they want someone else to take and threating to hurt them in some way if it is not done the way they want.

If it's not fundamentally separate from justice, then you actually have to backtrace to some principle of justice to take any sort of action based upon it.

RealSkinny Wrote:I don't feel like this changes what I've said. Did the State have a law that said police owe restitutions if they fail to follow a mandatory arrest statute and the person to be arrested causes an injury? If not, then how is the duty created? I think even if we tried to sue based on some kind of negligence, it would fail. The idea that police can prevent every single crime is far too unrealistic to claim such a duty exists.
But that's not even what the cases are about. They did allege a negligence as the police had been notified several times about the situation. Even if were were to ignore the issue of damages, if there was a duty to protect, then they would obligated to actually protect when they knew about such a situation. Courts have repeatedly ruled otherwise. Police may simply stand by and watch while a woman is being raped in the street and have no legal liability for doing so. This is even less of a duty than your average passerby who might be charged with conspiracy if he didn't report it.
RealSkinny Wrote:Here's a question. What if the Nation passed a new federal law tomorrow that stated every time a person is murdered, the Police of that county owe damages to the victim's estate? Now there would be no question that a duty exists. Do you think the Courts would still refuse to recognize it?
Probably not, but as I pointed out earlier that there would still be deficiencies in trying to prove the existence of a real body politic. (No consent)
RealSkinny Wrote:The reason I ask is because I personally believe the reason Courts claim no duty to protect is because this duty does not exist, but I get the impression you think the duty certainly exists, but it's being ignored. If the nation passed the statute mentioned above, do you think the courts would still ignore it?
No, if there really was a political body in the real sense, then such a duty would exist. If we are to take the current system seriously, this is what the current dicta of the supreme court is. Thus if we are to take the current system as reality, we cannot take the current system as reality by their own rules.


Re: Standing - WorBlux - 12-15-2010 03:52 PM

NonEntity Wrote:Barry Obama hizownself said, on the record, that government is "A group of people who hold a monopoly on the legitimate use of force in a given territory."
- NonE

I asked him before factually what is authority, and didn't get an answer from him (Real Skinny)

I wonder if Barry could tell us factually what legitimacy is? Hint: it's whatever they say it is.


To absolutely factual, government is a criminal organization which has obtained impunity.


Re: Standing - n2q0 - 12-16-2010 02:34 AM

Hi all:

What I took away from Marc's Standing article is the following:

Civil:
If I untruthfully disparage someone online and it negatively affects their business, they have standing to sue me as they have been financially harmed by my alleged lies.

Satisfies:
"...a cause of action is based upon the injury suffered by a plaintiff..." from:
Quote:Civil actions: “‘California follows the ‘primary right theory’ of Pomeroy: ‘Every judicial action must therefore involve the following elements: a primary right possessed by the plaintiff, and a corresponding primary duty devolving upon the defendant; a delict or wrong done by the defendant which consisted in a breach of such primary right and duty; a remedial right in favor of the plaintiff, and a remedial duty resting on the defendant springing from this delict, and finally the remedy or relief itself. ... Of these elements, the primary right and duty and the delict or wrong combined constitute the cause of action. . . .’ (4 Witkin, Cal. Procedure, supra, Pleading, § 24, p. 85, original italics.)’” Bush v. Superior Court (Rains) (1992) 10 Cal.App.4th 1374 [13 Cal.Rptr.2d 382]

“The court noted that ‘under the ‘primary right’ theory of pleading followed in California, a cause of action is based upon the injury suffered by a plaintiff, regardless of the particular legal theory or theories upon which plaintiff seeks redress.” (197 Cal.App.3d at p. 388; see Slater v. Blackwood (1975) 15 Cal.3d 791, 795 [126 Cal.Rptr. 225, 543 P.2d 593].)” Jenkins v. Pope (1990) 217 Cal.App.3d 1292; [266 Cal.Rptr. 557]

“'The duty of this court, as of every judicial tribunal, is limited to determining rights of persons or of property, which are actually controverted in the particular case before it. ... No stipulation of parties or counsel whether in the case before the court or in any other case, can enlarge the power, or affect the duty, of the court in this regard.'” (citing California v. San Pablo & T. R. Co., 149 U.S. 308, 314 [13 S.Ct. 876, 37 L.Ed. 747, 748]) Valdez v. Taylor Automobile Co. (1954) 129 Cal.App.2d 810



Criminal:
If I murder someone, the "State" has standing as the murdered person has been harmed.

"(1) the fact of the injury or loss or harm," of:
Quote:Criminal actions: “In every criminal trial, the prosecution must prove the corpus delecti, or the body of the crime itself - i.e., the fact of injury, loss or harm, and the existence of a criminal agency as its cause.” People v. Sapp (2003) 31 Cal.4th 240, 285 [quoting People v. Alvarez (2002) 27 Cal.4th 1161, 1168-1169, [119 Cal.Rptr.2d 903].

“The corpus delecti of a crime consists of two elements: (1) the fact of the injury or loss or harm, and (2) the existence of a criminal agency as its cause [citations omitted] there must be sufficient proof of both elements of the corpus delecti beyond a reasonable doubt.” 29A American Jurisprudence Second Ed., Evidence § 1476.

“As a general principal, standing to invoke the judicial process requires an actual justiciable controversy as to which the complainant has a real interest in the ultimate adjudication because he or she has either suffered or is about to suffer an injury.” People v. Superior Court (Plascencia) (2002) 103 Cal.App.4th 409; [126 Cal.Rptr.2d 793]. (Bold, italics, underline and color relief added.)


Criminal:
If I am speeding on the highway, the "State" has no standing as no one was harmed.

...Or...

If I am smoking/possessing pot, the "State" has no standing as no one was harmed.

Does not satisfy:
"(1) the fact of the injury or loss or harm," of:
Quote:Criminal actions: “In every criminal trial, the prosecution must prove the corpus delecti, or the body of the crime itself - i.e., the fact of injury, loss or harm, and the existence of a criminal agency as its cause.” People v. Sapp (2003) 31 Cal.4th 240, 285 [quoting People v. Alvarez (2002) 27 Cal.4th 1161, 1168-1169, [119 Cal.Rptr.2d 903].

“The corpus delecti of a crime consists of two elements: (1) the fact of the injury or loss or harm, and (2) the existence of a criminal agency as its cause [citations omitted] there must be sufficient proof of both elements of the corpus delecti beyond a reasonable doubt.” 29A American Jurisprudence Second Ed., Evidence § 1476.

“As a general principal, standing to invoke the judicial process requires an actual justiciable controversy as to which the complainant has a real interest in the ultimate adjudication because he or she has either suffered or is about to suffer an injury.” People v. Superior Court (Plascencia) (2002) 103 Cal.App.4th 409; [126 Cal.Rptr.2d 793]. (Bold, italics, underline and color relief added.)


Well, this was my understanding, which may very well be totally incorrect. Big Grin



On a side note, in reading the above about standing it mentioned:
Quote:..a primary right possessed by the plaintiff, and a corresponding primary duty devolving upon the defendant;..
At what point in our life did we take on "duties" involuntarily? What instrument compels us into a "duty" when we were born?


Re: Standing - indio - 12-16-2010 11:26 AM

The basis of the State regulating the highways is that driving is rebuttably a dangerous nuisance.
I'm not sure how corpus delecti applies to nuisances.


Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-18-2010 04:57 AM

Nomos Wrote:That case [People v. Superior Court], is clearly "a case," is clearly "criminal," and clearly states that "STANDING" is a "general principal."

It's actually a civil case. While the money was confiscated as a result of a criminal charge, the issue is not the criminal charge, but rather, the forfeiture of the money confiscated. In the case, the court notes several times that forfeiture is a civil action.

Quote:A forfeiture proceeding is a civil in rem action



Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-18-2010 04:59 AM

WorBlux Wrote:You do need to set out facts sufficient for a judge to see how it could possibly be battery and tell him that is what you intend to prove, but it is never "battery" until the final judgment.

Okay, but it still doesn't change the fact that you can satisfy the elements of battery without satisfying the elements of Standing.


Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-18-2010 05:12 AM

WorBlux Wrote:How do you create a right without an agreement?

I'm explaining how the system works. You don't have to agree with it.

WorBlux Wrote:This is even less of a duty than your average passerby who might be charged with conspiracy if he didn't report it.
Failing to report a crime is not a crime. They might be charged, but they would only be convicted if the prosecution could prove agreement or aid. I imagine it wouldn't be any different for a police officer who sits in a room and watches a person get raped. The officer's job probably wouldn't be too secure, but criminally he would probably not be liable if the only thing he failed to do was prevent the crime.

Edit: There's actually a really good case on this subject in the Law and Legal forum called "Ruling on Police" where the Court says the duty for a police officer is the same as any other citizen.

WorBlux Wrote:
RealSkinny Wrote:Here's a question. What if the Nation passed a new federal law tomorrow that stated every time a person is murdered, the Police of that county owe damages to the victim's estate? Now there would be no question that a duty exists. Do you think the Courts would still refuse to recognize it?
Probably not, but as I pointed out earlier that there would still be deficiencies in trying to prove the existence of a real body politic. (No consent)

It's interesting that once we make the duty more explicit, you believe the Courts would follow it. Maybe you're not upset because you think the duty does exist, but instead you're upset because you think the duty should exist?

I have no problem saying we should hold police liable if they fail to prevent crimes, but there is a difference between saying they should be liable and saying our current system does make them liable.


WorBlux Wrote:I asked him before factually what is authority, and didn't get an answer from him (Real Skinny)

I didn't think it was important for the topic to discuss authority except as it relates to Standing, and I thought we were doing that?


Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-18-2010 05:25 AM

n2q0 Wrote:Well, this was my understanding, which may very well be totally incorrect. Big Grin


Not at all. You raise a very important distinction for us.



n2q0 Wrote:Civil:
"...a cause of action is based upon the injury suffered by a plaintiff..."


Criminal:
"(1) the fact of the injury or loss or harm"
If I murder someone, the "State" has standing as the murdered person has been harmed.

Notice that in a civil action, Standing requires the injured party to be the plaintiff, but in a Criminal action, this requirement no longer exists. The State will bring the charges, despite the fact that they are not the victim. There's no way this would ever happen in a civil case. If the State tried to sue someone on your behalf, they would be dismissed for lack of Standing. In Criminal Law, however, the corpus delicti is still satisfied.

Clearly Corpus Delicti and Standing are distinct. The State satisfies Corpus Delicti in criminal law, but would never satisfy Standing in a civil case.


Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-18-2010 05:27 AM

indio Wrote:The basis of the State regulating the highways is that driving is rebuttably a dangerous nuisance.
I'm not sure how corpus delecti applies to nuisances.

Probably about the same as Standing does in a civil case. If Nuisance can satisfy the injury requirement in Standing, it will probably satisfy it under Corpus Delicti as well.


Re: Standing - RealSkinny - 12-18-2010 05:28 AM

NonEntity Wrote:
RealSkinny Wrote:I think your description is rather biased. Who are the folks with the guns? I gather you're referring to the police, correct? And then you claim these same people create the laws. Is it the responsibility of the Police to create laws in our society?

I'm going to say that your description of how our government operates is factually incorrect. The police don't create the laws, and something doesn't become a crime because it causes an injury to the police.

RealSkinny,

I'm blown away by your response here. I have to say that you appear either willfully stupid or unbelievably naive. "Who are the folks with the guns?" !!! :eekeek: Barry Obama hizownself said, on the record, that government is "A group of people who hold a monopoly on the legitimate use of force in a given territory."

I thought you were seriously debating this issue, but I see that I've been mistaken. :rolleyes2: Bye!

- NonE

C'mon NonEntity! We can work this out!


Re: Standing - indio - 12-18-2010 08:56 AM

RealSkinny Wrote:
indio Wrote:The basis of the State regulating the highways is that driving is rebuttably a dangerous nuisance.
I'm not sure how corpus delecti applies to nuisances.

Probably about the same as Standing does in a civil case. If Nuisance can satisfy the injury requirement in Standing, it will probably satisfy it under Corpus Delicti as well.
Well here's what it boils down to. Corpus delicti would be the charred remains of a burned house or the body of a murdered man combined with the criminal intent.
With nuisance, you have the tortious interference with the quiet enjoyment of some right.
Unless someone with "standing" complains, that their quiet enjoyment was interfered with, there can be no corpus delicti for a nuisance.
Standing is nothing more than the right to complain. I think it a relatively new term used in law. I can't find it defined in any older law dictionarys or encyclopaedia's .